NURS 6560 Midterm exam / NURS6560N Midterm exam (Year-2019/2020) (100 Q & A, Verified and 100% Correct Answers) - €22,11   in den Einkaufswagen

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NURS 6560 Midterm exam / NURS6560N Midterm exam (Year-2019/2020) (100 Q & A, Verified and 100% Correct Answers)

NURS 6560 Midterm Exam / NURS6560 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings: Walden University Walden University NURS 6560 Midterm Exam / Walden University NURS6560 Midterm Exam Question 1 S. is a 59-year-old female who has been followed for several years for aortic regurgitation. Serial echocardiography has demonstrated normal ventricular function, but the patient was lost to follow-up for the last 16 months and now presents complaining of activity intolerance and weight gain. Physical examination reveals a grade IV/VI diastolic aortic murmur and 2 lower extremity edema to the midcalf. The AGACNP considers which of the following as the most appropriate management strategy? A. Serial echocardiography every 6 months B. Begin a calcium channel antagonist C. Begin an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor D. Surgical consultation and intervention Question 2 An ascending thoracic aneurysm of > 5.5 cm is universally considered an indication for surgical repair, given the poor outcomes with sudden rupture. Regardless of the aneurysm’s size, all of the following are additional indications for immediate operation except: A. Comorbid Marfan’s syndrome B. Enlargement of > 1 cm since diagnosis C. Crushing chest pain D. History of giant cell arteritis Question 3 Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1°F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders: A. Anteroposterior neck radiography B. CT scan of the neck C. White blood cell (WBC) differential D. Aspiration and culture of fluid Question 4 Mr. Draper is a 39-year-old male recovering from an extended abdominal procedure. As a result of a serious motor vehicle accident, he has had repair of a small bowel perforation, splenectomy, and repair of a hepatic laceration. He will be on total parenteral nutrition postoperatively. The AGACNP recognizes that the most common complications of parenteral nutrition are a consequence of: A. Poorly calculated solution B. Resultant diarrhea and volume contraction C. The central venous line used for infusion D. Bowel disuse and hypomotility Question 5 Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is: A. < 10% B. 25-50% C. 50-75% D. > 90 Question 6 One of the earliest findings for a patient in hypovolemic shock is: A. A drop in systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 10 mm Hg for > 1 minute when sitting up B. A change in mental status C. SaO2 of < 88% D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) < 9 g/dL and 27% Question 7 Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with: A. Respiratory insufficiency B. Sepsis C. Bowel obstruction D. Anemia Question 8 The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patient’s mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows: BP 88/54 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93% on a 50% mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5 Cardiac index 1.3 L/min Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state? A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Distributive D. Obstructive Question 9 When counseling patients to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications, the AGACNP knows that with respect to smoking cessation, the American College of Surgeons and National Surgical Quality Improvement Program guidelines are clear that patients who stop smoking _____ weeks before surgery have no increased risk of smokingrelated pulmonary complications. A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Question 10 Mitch C. is a 39-year-old male who is brought to the ED by paramedics. According to the report of a neighbor, Mitch was distraught over a breakup with his fiancée and attempted to commit suicide by mixing some chemicals from under his kitchen sink and drinking them; afterward he changed his mind and knocked on his neighbor’s door asking for help. Mitch is awake but stuporous, and the neighbor has no idea what he drank. Visual inspection of his mouth and oropharynx reveals some edema and erythema. He is coughing and has large amounts of pooling saliva. Mitch is not capable of answering questions but he appears in pain. Endoscopy reveals full thickness mucosal injury with mucosal sloughing, ulceration, and exudate. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate course of treatment must include: A.At least 6 hours of observation in the emergency department B. Periodic esophagram C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation D.Esophagogastrectomy Question 11 Jared V. is a 35-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a dry cough. He reports feeling well overall but notices that he gets out of breath more easily than he used to when playing soccer. A review of systems yields results that are essentially benign, although the patient does admit to an unusual rash on his legs. Physical examination reveals scattered erythematous nodules on both shins. There is no drainage, discomfort, or itch. Additionally, diffuse, mildly enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated bilaterally. Results of a comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count are within normal limits. Twelve-lead ECG reveals sinus bradycardia at 58 bpm. Chest radiography reveals bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. The AGACNP suspects: A.Bronchiectasis B. Pulmonary fibrosis C. Sarcoidosis D.Lung carcinoma Question 12 Mrs. Miller is a 44-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Her urine output overnight was approximately 200 mL. The appropriate response for the AGACNP would be to order: A.A urinalysis and culture B. 1 liter of NSS over 8 hours C. Encourage increased mobility D.Liberalize salt in the diet Question 13 All of the following are risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax except: A.Connective tissue disease B. Scuba diving C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) D.Central line insertion Question 14 The AGACNP is going over preoperative information and instructions with a patient who is having a major transverse abdominal procedure tomorrow morning. The patient is very nervous and is asking a lot of questions. The AGACNP prescribes a sleeping agent because he knows that anxiety and sleeplessness may: A.Lead to hypoxia due to hyperventilation B. Increase the physiologic stress response postoperatively C. Contribute to risk of delirium and prolonged length of stay D.Decreasep.o. intake and produce nutritional risk Question 15 In a patient with thyroid nodules, which of the following is the diagnostic study of choice to rule out thyroid cancer? A.Radioiodine scanning B. Percutaneous needle biopsy C. CT scan D.Ultrasound Question 16 When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice? A.Calcium channel antagonists B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection C. Pneumatic dilation D.Myotomy and partial fundoplication Question 17 Mr. Liu is a 52-year-old male who has a history of thyroidectomy. He presents complaining of numbness and tingling in his legs and feet and generalized fatigue. Physical examination reveals a positive Chvostek’s sign. Which of the following laboratory studies should be ordered first? A.Renal function tests B. Parathyroid hormone C. Calcium D.Magnesium Question 18 V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade II/VI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include: A.Annual or biannual serial echocardiography B. Modification of activity level C. Baseline cardiac catheterization D. Statin therapy Question 19 The lower esophageal sphincter is characterized by periods of intermittent relaxation called transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations. These relaxations are independent of the relaxation triggered by swallowing and are the most common cause of: A. Physiologic reflux B. Symptomatic esophagitis C. Barrett’s metaplasia D.Esophageal carcinoma Question 20 While reviewing morning labs on a postoperative patient, the AGACNP notes that the patient’s basic metabolic panel is as follows: Na 132 mEq/L K 4.6 mEq/L Cl- 87 mEq/L CO2 25 mEq/L A normal saline infusion is ordered in an attempt to avoid: A.Hyperkalemia B. Hypernatremia C. Metabolic alkalosis D.Metabolic acidosis Question 21 W. is a 49-year-old man who presents for evaluation. He has a long history of alcohol and tobacco use, with a 65-year pack history and an admitted 14-drink-per-week alcohol habit. He is getting worried because he can no longer swallow his bourbon. He is not a good historian but he does admit to a 1 year history of bloating, heartburn, and progressive difficulty swallowing food. He didn’t worry too much about his symptoms until he stopped being able to swallow bourbon. He thinks he has lost approximately 15 lbs in the last year. He denies any blood in his stool and has not had any vomiting. The AGACNP knows that the most likely diagnosis is: A.Zenker’s diverticulum B. Achalasia C. Esophageal carcinoma D.Hiatal hernia Question 22 Which of the following treatment modalities has no role in the treatment of shock? A.Lactated Ringer’s B. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) C. Vasopressors D.Colloid solutions Question 23 The development of coronary artery disease (CAD) and, ultimately, plaque formation is a multifactorial process that includes endothelial injury from hypertension, cigarette smoking, and dyslipidemia. These events lead to endothelial cell dysfunction, which is theorized to result in: A.Decreased nitric oxide production B. Smooth muscle cell atrophy C. Collagen degradation D.Enlarged arterial lumen Question 24 Mr. Comstock is a 71-year-old male who presents with a general sense of feeling weak and unwell; he thinks he has the flu even though he received a flu vaccination this year. He describes a vague collection of symptoms, including weakness, nausea, dizziness, and “getting out of breath” very easily. He says he can barely climb the steps anymore without stopping to rest. Of the possible differential diagnoses, coronary artery disease (CAD) is high among the probabilities because of his age and gender. His physical examination is unremarkable except that he appears weak. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.0°F, pulse 100 bpm, respiratory rate 16 b.p.m., and BP 178/100 mm Hg. A chest radiograph is within normal limits with no acute pulmonary infection. A 12-lead ECG reveals inverted T waves in leads V1 to V5. The AGACNP is suspicious that most of his symptoms are: A. Psychosomatic B. Early congestive heart failure (CHF) C. Anginal equivalents D.Normal age-related changes Question 25 Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade V/VI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes: A. Acute mitral valve regurgitation B. Acute aortic valve regurgitation C. Acute cardiac tamponade D. Acute pulmonary embolus Question 26 Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a “beating heart” bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that: A.There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications B. Long-term results suggest that the grafts do not stay open as long as those in traditional bypass grafting C. The incidence of off-pump bypass grafting has increased significantly in the last 10 years D.The off-pump procedure is considerably more expensive but is correlated with better long-term outcomes Question 27 Mrs. McCallum is a 48-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a vague set of gastrointestinal symptoms. She feels generally well and has always been healthy, but lately she has had a lot of heartburn and a sense of reflux in her throat. Most recently she has had a recurring sense of food getting stuck in her throat. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study should be performed first? A.Barium swallow B. Upper endoscopy C. Esophageal manometry D.Ambulatory pH monitoring Question 28 Mr. Key is a 53-year-old male patient who developed empyema following a serious bout of bacterial pneumonia. He presented as septic and was started immediately on intravenous antibiotics and drainage of the sinus cavity. Forty-eight hours later, he is much improved clinically and drainage has receded. The next step in his care would be: A.A CT scan B. Eloesser’s procedure C. Decortication D.Reexpansion Question 29 Mrs. Bowers is a 41-year-old patient who requires surgical management of osteomyelitis. She has a long history of methamphetamine use and has a BMI of 17.9 kg/m2 . She clearly is nutritionally depleted and volume contracted, but she has no clear chronic medical history except for unmedicated hypertension, which may be due to her chronic stimulant use. She denies alcohol use but admits to a 1½ pack a day cigarette habit. A primary postoperative concern for Mrs. Bowers is: A.Excess bleeding B. Thromboemboli development C. Poor wound healing D.Renal failure Question 30 The congenital diaphragmatic hernia that occurs more often in women and does not usually produce symptoms until midlife is known as: A.Zenker’s hernia B. Bochdalek’s hernia C. Morgagni’s hernia D.Atraumatic hernia Question 31 B. is a 67-year-old male who is being discharged following inpatient management for unstable angina. S. B. did not know that he had coronary artery disease (CAD) and in fact had not seen a health care provider for many years. While reviewing his lifestyle habits, he admits that he is obese, has poor eating habits, does not engage in any purposeful physical activity, and smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. He verbalizes that he is grateful that this was not a “real” heart attack and does not seem receptive to lifestyle management strategies. The AGACNP advises him that it is important to take this “warning” attack seriously because: A. 10% of patients with unstable angina will die of cardiovascular disease within 6 months B. 25% of patients with unstable angina will develop congestive heart failure within 6 months C. 65% of patients with unstable angina will have an ST elevation MI within 1 year D. 90% of patients with unstable angina will have cerebrovascular symptoms within 1 year Question 32 According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS), who among the following patients should have a chest radiograph as part of preoperative assessment? A.All patients > 40 years of age B. All patients who smoke cigarettes C. All patients having thoracic procedures D.All patients with cardiac disease Question 33 According to the Carpentier classification scheme of mitral valve regurgitation, a type I regurgitation is most likely due to: A.Cardiomyopathy B. Excessive leaflet motion C. Ruptured papillary muscles D.Rheumatic heart disease Question 34 V. is a 37-year-old female who is admitted via the emergency room after her roommate called emergency medical services (EMS). She has no significant medical history and does not know what is wrong with her. She has been feeling generally unwell for the last few days, and today she had an episode of confusion that scared her roommate to the extent that the roommate called EMS. Her physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.9°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. A comprehensive metabolic panel reveals a slightly elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine but otherwise is normal. A white blood cell differential reveals a leukocyte count of 14,000 cells/µL with neutrophils of 83%. The AGACNP knows that these values are consistent with: A. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) B. High-output septic shock C. Neurogenic shock D.Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) Question 35 Which shock state is worsened in the setting of mechanical ventilation? A. Septic B. Cardiac compressive C. Neurogenic D.Cardiogenic Question 36 B. is a 41-year-old male being admitted for surgical reduction of an open femur fracture sustained in a multiple vehicle collision. Preoperative assessment reveals that he is on beta-adrenergic antagonists after having been diagnosed with coronary artery disease approximately 1 month ago. He admits that he feels a little better but says he still gets pain in his chest when he exerts himself. He is pain free now. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.1°F, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the most important action before R. B. goes to the operating room? A.A cardiology consultation B. Blood pressure control C. Resuming beta-adrenergic antagonists D. Pain control Question 37 Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is: A. Production of a dry ear B. Preservation of sensorineural hearing C. Debridement of infection D.Restoration of the tympanic membrane Question 38 The AGACNP knows that when managing a patient with acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction, all of the following pharmacologic agents may be used except: A.Opioids B. Diuretics C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists D.Anticholinergics Question 39 Mr. Baer is a 79-year-old man who is being admitted for a carotid endarterectomy. While performing his preoperative evaluation, the AGACNP appreciates two positive answers to the CAGE screening questionnaire. This is an indication for: A. Perioperative benzodiazepines for withdrawal syndrome B. Daily multivitamin and 100 mg of thiamine perioperatively C. Further diagnostic evaluation for alcoholism D.Delay of operation until completion of detoxification Question 40 According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCF/AHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that: A.Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant D.Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures Question 41 Mr. Austin is a 64-year-old male who has a long history of mitral valve stenosis. His condition has developed to the extent that he has symptomatic congestive heart failure, and due to a variety of comorbidities he is not a candidate for surgery. Ongoing medical therapy for Mr. Austin should include: A.Anticoagulants B. Diuretics C. Antibiotics D.Inotropes Question 42 The progression of coronary artery plaque formation can lead to a variety of pathologic conditions. When subtotal plaque disruption occurs resulting in vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, it most commonly causes which clinical phenomenon? A.Endothelial cell dysfunction B. Prinzmetal’s angina C. Transmural myocardial infarction D.Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction Question 43 D. is a 29-year-old male who presents with a chief complaint of profound dizziness for the past 2 to 3 days. Further clarification reveals that he is having brief but intense episodes of a sense of the room spinning. He denies any history of head injury or discharge from the ear. The vertigo is reproduced easily with cervical rotation. The AGACNP knows that the most likely cause is: A.Cerebral tumor B. Ménière’s disease C. Adverse drug effect D.Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) Question 44 P.T. is a 61-year-old male who is seen in follow-up. He was initially seen for evaluation of dysphagia. An endoscopy was negative for malignancy and subsequent esophageal manometry supported a diagnosis of esophageal achalasia. While discussing implications and treatment options with P.T., the AGACNP tells him that the primary complication of achalasia is: A. Progressive esophageal discomfort B. Aspiration pneumonia C. Squamous cell carcinoma D.Long-term malabsorption problems Question 45 R. is a 51-year-old female who presents in shock following a penetrating injury to the spinal cord—her boyfriend reportedly stabbed her in the back with an unidentified kitchen utensil. The patient’s mental status is deteriorating, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 97.2°F, heart rate 131 bpm, respirations 14 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 79/49 mm Hg. The AGACNP presumes neurogenic shock, with the injury likely: A.Not fully transecting the spinal cord B. At the level of T10 C. Precipitating sepsis D. Producing cardiovascular decompensation Question 46 Janet is a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history who is being evaluated for a planned uterine ablation. She has significant history of menorrhagia and has been unresponsive to a variety of medical therapies to try to stop the bleeding. Her history and physical examination are within normal limits. The AGACNP knows that Janet will require which one of the following preoperative diagnostic studies? A. Urinalysis B. Complete blood count C. 12-lead electrocardiogram D.Chest radiography Question 47 Best practices for assessing diseases of the thyroid gland include a thorough but targeted history, systematic physical examination, and selective use of appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The AGACNP knows that although serum T3 and T4 are not indicated routinely, a free T4 test is most useful in evaluating patients: A.With profound symptoms of hypothyroidism B. Following treatment for Graves’ disease C. To rule out autonomous toxic nodule D. At risk for thyroid cancer Question 48 Evaluation of cardiac valve disease must include: A.Chest radiography B. 12-lead ECG C. Echocardiography D.Chemical stress test Question 49 Jolene L. is a 36-year-old female who presents for an emergent cholecystectomy; she has had progressive acute pain for almost 1 week and now there is concern about gangrenous tissue. Of particular concern is the fact that she has Graves’ disease and has not been adherent to treatment. On admission, her temperature is 102.7°F, pulse is 158 bpm, and blood pressure is 180/114 mm Hg. She is tremulous and anxious. A 12-lead ECG reveals uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. Before cholecystectomy, Jolene must be treated with: A.Digitalis for heart rate control B. Radioactive ablation C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists D.Reserpine Question 50 W. is discussing his postoperative hip replacement expectations. He is advised that although he will have some discomfort, he should be vocal about asking for pain medication, because it is essential that he get out of bed and begin ambulating as soon as possible after his surgery. He expresses some fear and is concerned that his hip won’t heal properly if he walks on it. The AGACNP reassures him that he must begin ambulating quickly in order to decrease risk for: A.Decubitus ulcers B. Scar tissue formation C. Pneumonia D.Anxiety Question 51 H. is a 71-year-old male with small cell lung cancer; he has been treated with chemotherapy. Initially he had symptom improvement but now appears to have had a recurrence. On examination today, he is quite edematous and has gained 12 lbs since his office visit 1 week ago. A metabolic panel reveals a serum Na of 119 mEq/dL. The AGACNP knows that J. H. likely has: A.Brain metastasis B. Congestive heart failure (CHF) C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) D.Metabolic alkalosis Question 52 According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except: A.Cognitive ability B. Functional status C. Competency assessment D. Frailty score Question 53 Improvements in both equipment and technique have led to the evolution of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) as being used most commonly for: A.Mediastinal lymph node dissection B. Resection of malignant tumor C. Metastasectomy D.Thoracic vertebral discectomy Question 54 Which of the following is a normal finding on postoperative day 8 of a carotid endarterectomy? A.A temperature of 100.5°F B. Serosanguinous drainage with some tenderness C. A flesh-colored induration along the entire length of the incision D.A fluctuant collection of milky fluid Question 55 Mrs. Evans is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 3 following resection of a small bowel tumor. She is alert today and her nasogastric tube is removed. The AGACNP knows that if the recovery proceeds normally, Mrs. Evans may begin clear liquids: A.Immediately B. In 24 hours C. When bowel sounds return D.After a negative swallow study Question 56 When writing the initial postoperative progress note, the AGACNP should be sure to include all of the following except: A.A summary of the procedure and any significant deviations from normal B. An outline of the plan for postoperative management and follow-up C. The plan for ongoing monitoring D. Mechanism of DVT prophylaxis Question 57 T. is a 39-year-old male who presents to the hospital emergency room with a chief complaint of profound substernal chest pain. Results of the 12-lead ECG and cardiac enzymes test are normal. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 101.9°F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. The patient is pale and clearly unwell, and physical examination reveals a systolic pericardial crunching sound. Which of the following additional pieces of history would make the AGACNP suspect acute mediastinitis? A.A 48 pack year smoke history B. A 2-day history of vomiting C. Aortic valve regurgitation D.Cardiac tamponade Question 58 Mrs. Van Doern is being examined on postop day 3 following surgical resection following a bowel obstruction. The postoperative course been unremarkable. Upon removal of the dressing, the incision is dry with staples intact. There is an approximately 0.5 cm erythema around the incision. There is no exudate. The patient demonstrates some discomfort on palpation of the site. The most appropriate approach to this patient includes: A.Leaving the wound open to air and medicating for pain B. Ordering a topical antibiotic, replacing the dressing with a nonadherent dressing, and following up in 2 days C. Beginning systemic antibiotics to cover skin flora D.Obtaining a white blood cell differential, redress the wound and reassess in the a.m. Question 59 K.T. is a 38-year-old female with a BMI of 39 kg/m2 who needs surgical reduction of a hiatal hernia. She is asking about the recovery process and says that she has read about something called the obesity paradox. She wants to know what that means with respect to her healing. The AGACNP explains that the paradox refers to the fact that: A. Obesity correlates with poor outcomes for some surgical procedures but not others. B. There is an inverse relationship between weight and surgical outcomes. C. Underweight patients have more surgical complications than obese patients. D. Planned weight loss preoperatively is indicated only when the BMI is > 40 kg/m2 . Question 60 Esophageal motility disorders are sometimes a consequence of systemic diseases such as scleroderma, Raynaud’s disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus. When patients with these diseases have gastroparesis, which medication should be added to the regimen? A. A proton pump inhibitor B. A histamine 2 receptor antagonist C. A calcium channel antagonist D. A promotility agent Question 61 S. is a 46-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer. She is currently off cycle for chemotherapy and generally is feeling well. Today, however, she presents feeling acutely unwell. She says that she has had coldlike symptoms over the last few days, including cough, nasal congestion, headache, and a hoarse voice in the mornings. Today she became acutely concerned because she feels as though her face and even shoulders look swollen and a bit discolored—bluish. She denies any nausea or vomiting but admits to feeling generally fatigued; she attribute it to her cancer. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP knows that treatment will likely include: A.Radiation B. Surgery C. Fibrinolytics D. Expansile stents Question 62 D. is a 61-year-old female patient who complaints of pleuritic chest pain and cough. During the history, she indicates that she occasionally has seen a little bit of blood in her sputum, but she thought it was from coughing so hard. What finally prompted her to come in was that she coughed up a “stone.” Recognizing that the patient might have broncholithiasis, the AGACNP asks about exposure to: A.Cigarettes B. Asbestos C. Bird excrement D. Swimming pools Question 63 Heart transplant is the surgical option for patients with congestive heart failure for whom medical therapies have failed. All of the following are contraindications to transplant except: A.New York Heart Association (NYHA) class IV status B. Obesity C. Elevated pulmonary vascular resistance D.Recent malignancy Question 64 Kelly T. is a 49-year-old female who is being admitted for aortic valve replacement. Her preoperative evaluation revealed an ascending thoracic aneurysm of 4.8 cm in diameter. Kelly has not had any aneurysm symptoms and is generally considered a very strong surgical candidate. The AGACNP knows that the standard of care dictates: A. Postponing her valve surgery due to the aneurysm B. Annual imaging of the aneurysm after her valve replacement C. Surgical repair of the aneurysm at the same time as valve replacement D. Surgical repair of the aneurysm after successful recovery from valve replacement Question 65 K. is a 39-year-old female who was admitted for evaluation of progressive activity intolerance, and chest radiography revealed a large right lower lobe pleural effusion. A pleural fluid tap was performed, but fluid analysis results were inconclusive and the cause of the effusion could not be identified. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study is most appropriate to identify the cause of pleural effusion when fluid analysis is inadequate? A. Scalene biopsy B. Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) C. Pleural needle biopsy D.Open surgical biopsy Question 66 While on call, the AGACNP is asked to evaluate a deteriorating patient. The patient was admitted for exacerbation of pneumonia and congestive heart failure (CHF). The systolic blood pressure is < 90 mm Hg, and the urine output is < 10 mL/hr. A 12-lead ECG reveals no acute processes but reveals previously noted changes that are consistent with bilateral atrial and ventricular enlargement and a marked left axis deviation. You insert a pulmonary artery (PA) line and anticipate which of the following pressures? (CI, cardiac index; PAOP, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ; RAP, right atrial pressure) A.CI 1.3 L/min, PAOP 27 mm Hg, RAP 18 mm Hg B. CI 1.9 L/min, PAOP 12 mm Hg, RAP 6 mm Hg C. CI 2.4 L/min, PAOP 18 mm Hg, RAP 8 mm Hg D.CI 1.4 L/min, PAOP 7 mm Hg, RAP 4 mm Hg Question 67 A critically ill patient with multiple traumatic injuries sustained during a motor vehicle accident has had a pulmonary artery line inserted to follow cardiac pressures. Which of the following sets of pressures would be consistent with hypovolemic shock? (CI, cardiac index; CVP, central venous pressure; PCWP, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure) A.CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 27 mm Hg, CVP 18 mm Hg B. CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 6 mm Hg, CVP 4 mm Hg C. CI 2.3 L/min, PCWP 12 mm Hg, CVP 8 mm Hg D.CI 2.9 L/min, PCWP 16 mm Hg, CVP 6 mm Hg Question 68 Aggressive fluid resuscitation is indicated in all of the following shock states except: A.Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Obstructive D.Distributive Question 69 The risk-benefit ratio always is considered when evaluating patients with mitral valve disease as surgical candidates for valve correction. Who among the following patients is not considered a good operative candidate? A. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and endocarditis with systemic embolization B. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and left ventricular dysfunction C. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and normal ventricular function D. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension Question 70 T. is a 29-year-old male who is recovering from an open fixation of a femur fracture sustained in a diving accident. He has an order for Dilaudid 1 mg IV q2h p.r.n. for pain. He is still having pain and requests more medication. The AGACNP considers that: A.This is the maximum dose for Dilaudid and nonpharmacologic measures should be maximized B. The dose may be increased to 2 mg and response assessed C. He may be opiate addicted, and this should be explored before the dose is increased D.An adjunct medication such as ibuprofen should be added to his regimen Question 71 Mrs. Saraceno is a 71-year-old female who had an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was managed successfully with a loop diuretic and is ultimately discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is seen in the office postoperatively 2 weeks after discharge. She has not yet seen a cardiologist but has continued all discharge medications. Her metabolic panel is as follows: Na 126 mEq/L K 4.0 mEq/L Cl- 93 mEq/L CO2 28 mEq/L BUN 40 mg/dL Cr 1.3 mg/dL The AGACNP recognizes that the patient likely has which abnormality as a consequence of diuretic overuse? A.Hyponatremia B. Hypokalemia C. Metabolic acidosis D.Intrarenal failure Question 72 Mrs. Hoffman is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 4 following mastectomy for breast cancer. This morning her vital signs include a temperature of 101.2°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The incisions look good and there is no physical finding or symptom of incision infection. The only abnormal physical finding is a significant tender edema on the right cheek and neck. In addition to ordering increased intravenous hydration and parenteral antibiotics to target Staphylococcus aureus, the AGACNP orders: A. Loop diuretics B. Chewing gum C. Ambulation D.Incentive spirometry Question 73 Kelly is a 50-year-old female who had chest radiography as part of a preoperative history and physical examination before an elective cosmetic procedure. She has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications except hormone therapy for menopausal symptoms. The radiology report of her chest film includes a 4-mm coin lesion in the right middle lobe. Kelly reports her health as excellent and has no clear risk factors for malignancy. The AGACNP knows that the next step in her management should be: A.Repeat radiography in 6 months B. CT scan of the chest C. Needle biopsy of the lesion D.A pulmonology consult Question 74 Which of the following esophageal foreign objects should not have endoscopic removal attempted? A.Impacted meat B. Pointed nail C. Button battery D.Cocaine packet Question 75 Mrs. Glasgow is a 55-year-old female who is day 4 post open cholecystectomy. She has had some unanticipated postoperative ectopy and remains hospitalized. This morning her temperature is 100.9°F. While assessing her for infection, the AGACNP knows that which finding would be most consistent with an infectious process? A.Neutrophilia of 82% of the white blood cell differential B. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio of > 20 C. Pain to palpation at the incision site D.A significant decrease in appetite Question 76 L. is a 48-year-old female who has suffered with profound GERD symptoms for several years. She has had aggressive trials of medical therapies and has been adherent to nonpharmacologic interventions. She is now in the aggressive diagnostic phase of evaluation and is preparing for 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring. The AGACNP advises that in preparation for this test, M. L. should: A.Continue her current proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy consistent with the way she has been taking it B. Eat consistently with her normal eating habits up until the procedure C. Avoid straining for a bowel movement while the monitor is in place D.Not do anything differently as compared with her normal daily life Question 77 Mr. Rowley is a 79-year-old male patient who is having a surgical repair of a thoracic aneurysm. He has significant underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease (CAD), and his early postoperative course will require ventilator support, nutritional support, and a variety of drains and other apparatuses. His wife has asked that he not be told about the ventilator because he is afraid of it—he watched his brother struggle with ventilator therapy. The best approach would be to tell Mrs. Rowley that: A.The patient will be sedated and will not remember the ventilator after he recovers B. Her wishes will be respected and the ventilator specifically will not be discussed C. Being prepared for his postoperative treatment will lessen his anxiety and fear D.Every effort will be made to avoid ventilator support Question 78 Ludwig’s angina is a potentially fatal condition characterized by neck pain, neck edema, edema of the base of the mouth, and tongue displacement. The AGACNP knows that the underlying cause is a consequence of: A.Arteriolar constriction B. Hypersensitivity C. Infection D.Adverse drug effect Question 79 When counseling a 41-year-old female patient who requires mitral valve surgery for severe mitral stenosis, the AGACNP helps differentiate among options. She advises the patient that in most circumstances, given her age, she is likely to do best with which type of procedure? A.Bioprosthetic valve replacement B. Mechanical valve replacement C. Native valve debridement D.Catheter-based balloon valvotomy Question 80 Alan is a 14-year-old male who has been referred for evaluation of a previously undiagnosed cardiac murmur. According to his parents, Alan has no significant medical history and has always been a healthy child. His growth and development have been within normal limits and his well-child checks have been normal. His cardiac murmur was identified during a soccer preparticipation physical examination. During today’s exam, he denies any cardiopulmonary symptoms. He admits that he gets out of breath when he is running during soccer but assumed it was just because he was running. Physical examination reveals a grade III/VI systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border, and a clearly fixed split S2 heart sound. The AGACNP knows that this murmur is probably: A.Mitral regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Atrial septal defect D. Still’s murmur Question 81 The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who he believes has fungal pneumonia. The patient says she has just relocated to Pennsylvania from Scottsdale, Arizona. When considering specific types of fungal etiology, the AGACNP knows that which type is endemic to the Arizona desert? A.Histoplasmosis B. Blastomycosis C. Coccidioidomycosis D.Aspergillosis P Question 82 With respect to management of chronic illness on the morning of surgery, which of the following is a true statement? A. Patient with diabetes should be started on an insulin gtt to maintain serum glucose < 150 mg/dL B. Patients with coronary artery disease should have antiplatelet agents held C. Patients on beta adrenergic antagonists should continue therapy D. Patients with Hgb < 9 mg/dL should be transfused with packed red blood cells Question 83 Mr. Mireya is a 66-year-old male who is admitted for palliative surgery for a glioblastoma. He has borderline stage III-IV chronic kidney disease. The AGACNP realizes that he is at increased risk in the perioperative period for: A.Hypercalcemia B. Hypokalemia C. Thrombocytopenia D.Eosinophilia Question 84 Barrett’s esophagus is best described as: A.A symptomatic condition of gastric reflux B. A condition that occurs more commonly in women of childbearing age C. A metaplastic adaptation to repeated irritation D.A secondary motility disorder Question 85 Ms. Carson is a 71-year-old female who presents with significant pleuritic-type chest pain. She has no known cardiopulmonary history and does not smoke cigarettes. Her history is significant only for an upper endoscopy this morning for evaluation of severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She tolerated the procedure well and was discharged home. Over the afternoon she developed worsening pain on the left side of her chest and finally had to come to the emergency department. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 100.0°F, pulse 116 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg. The AGACNP orders which of the following diagnostic studies to confirm the suspected diagnosis? A.Chest radiograph B. 12-lead ECG C. Upper endoscopy D.Esophagram Question 86 Lilly M. is a 44-year-old female who is transferred to the emergency department following a severe fall. She had been standing on the balcony of a four-story building and tried to balance on the railing. She fell and sustained numerous internal and external injuries. In the emergency room she was in profound hypovolemic shock. Bleeding appears to have been stopped, and rapid infusion of 2 L of normal saline has just been completed. The AGACNP knows that the next step in fluid resuscitation includes: A.Transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) based on hematocrit B. Infusion of 1 L of lactated Ringer’s C. 1 more liter of normal saline solution (NSS) over 10 minutes D.No additional fluid unless the systolic blood pressure (SBP) is < 90 mm Hg Question 87 W. is a 67-year-old male with a history of significant coronary artery disease, who now presents in acute cardiogenic shock. His blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg, and the pulse is in sinus bradycardia at 44 bpm. He is awake and oriented but lethargic and says he feels lightheaded. The treatment of choice for this patient is: A. Transvenous pacing B. Aggressive fluid resuscitation C. Atropine 0.5 mg q2min × 4 D. Epinephrine 1 mg IV Question 88 Jeff Z. is a 49-year-old male who is on the heart transplant list due to myocarditis-related end stage congestive heart failure. While counseling Jeff about bridge devices that allow him to be discharged from the hospital, the AGACNP tells Jeff that the most frequently used device is: A.Ideal for smaller-framed patients B. Implanted below the diaphragm C. Independent of external power for up to 24 hours D.Good for up to 2 years Question 89 Mrs. Brownlee is a 63-year-old female who is admitted for surgical replacement of her aortic valve. She has a history of symptomatic aortic stenosis, osteoarthritis, and hypothyroidism. She has always been very thin, and her admitting height and weight are 5’4” and 110 lbs. In considering her postoperative nutritional needs, the AGACNP recognizes that: A. Postoperative calorie requirements are higher than baseline because of the hypermetabolic response to physiologic stress B. The parasympathetic response to thoracic surgery requires a proportionally greater increase in protein calories C. Calorie requirements will not change postoperatively, as the increased stress response is balanced by bedrest and decreased activity calorie use. D.Nutritional requirements are individualized postoperatively, and it is not possible to predict postoperative needs in Question 90 Mr. Cortez is a 41-year-old male with a long history of chronic allergic rhinitis. He has not had health insurance for most of his adult life, so he has self-treated his nasal symptoms with a combination of over-the-counter agents including antihistamines, decongestants, and nasal sprays. He recently obtained coverage under the Affordable Care Act and presents more regularly for care of his chronic nasal symptoms; he cannot go longer than a few hours without using his nasal spray. The nasal mucosa is edematous and hyperemic on inspection. The AGACNP know that this patient suffers from: A.Chronic sinusitis B. Rhinitis medicamentosa C. Adverse drug effect D. Psychological dependence Question 91 Mrs. Knickerson is an 89-year-old female who lives alone at home. She is generally in good health, and her functional status is reasonably strong. Her son and daughter-in-law stop by once or twice a week and help her with some household chores. Mrs. Knickerson’s only medical diagnosis is hypertension, for which she has taken HCTZ 12.5 mg for as long as she can remember. Today when her son went into the home, he found her in bed, clearly unwell and a bit disoriented. Upon hospital admission, she is found to have vital signs as follows: temperature 100.9°F, pulse 122 bpm, respirations 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 82/53 mm Hg. Her saO2 on 2 L of nasal oxygen is 89%. Chest radiograph is clear, and 12-lead ECG demonstrates sinus tachycardia. Urinalysis reveals white blood cells, nitrites, red blood cells, and bacteriuria. The AGACNP suspects which of the following shock states? A.Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Obstructive D.Neurogenic Question 92 Which of the following is a true statement with respect to needle lung biopsy? A.It is the preferred method of biopsy in patients with comorbid pulmonary hypertension B. It is highly sensitive, yielding diagnostic data in > 90% of patients C. Serious complications are very rare D.There is concern about spreading a tumor in patients with localized disease Question 93 S. is a 55-year-old male patient with obstructive sleep apnea. He is motivated to control his condition and has been adherent to conservative therapeutic options. He has lost almost 65 lbs and now has a body mass index of 29. He drinks alcohol < 1 x monthly and does not smoke cigarettes. He had difficulty adjusting to bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) but has used it for several months, with only marginal improvement. He presents today to talk about surgical options. The AGACNP counsels J. S. that: A.He is not a strong candidate for surgical success B. Before the operation, he needs to reduce his BMI to 25 C. The first step would be tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy D.The best out outcomes occur with multilevel surgery Question 94 The process by which an assessment of the patient is performed, before an operation, to evaluate overall health and identify risk factors for intra- and postoperative complications is known as: A. Preoperative evaluation B. Diagnostic evaluation C. Preoperative preparation D.Diagnostic preparation Question 95 Mrs. Carroll is an 81-year-old female who is going to have a surgical procedure for removal of an obstructing large-bowel tumor. While assessing her nutritional status, the AGACNP knows that which of the following is a severe risk factor for poor surgical outcome? A.Admitting body mass index of 18.1 kg/m2 B. 3 day dietary history of < 1200 calories daily C. A serum albumin of 3.2 g/dL D.Unplanned weight loss of 8 lbs. in the last 6 months. Question 96 Carolyn is a 25-year-old injection drug user who has had a long history of health problems since her early teenage years. She has preexisting mitral valve regurgitation and has had endocarditis in the past. She is now being treated for lung abscess that presumably occurred with aspiration in an intoxicated state. She was admitted and started on intravenous antibiotic therapy, IV fluids, and nutritional support. She is now on day 5 of antibiotic therapy and remains septic and febrile. The AGACNP knows that the indicated course of treatment includes: A.Continued antibiotic therapy with evaluation on day 7 B. Change to a different extended spectrum antibiotic C. Percutaneous drainage of the abscess D.Thoracotomy with open drainage Question 97 Mr. Zuckerman is a 62-year-old man who presents for evaluation of a sense of difficulty swallowing and food getting stuck. He also reports that sometimes he can hear or “feel” a gurgling sound in his throat. He had a barium swallow study that demonstrated a large pharyngoesophageal (Zenker’s) diverticulum. The AGACNP knows that which of the following additional diagnostic studies is not indicated? A.Esophageal manometry B. Chest radiograph C. Endoscopy D.Ambulatory pH monitoring Question 98 Which of the following foreign bodies in the ear canal is considered a surgical emergency that requires immediate intervention by otolaryngology (ENT) without any attempt to remove by a non-ENT provider? A.A popcorn kernel B. A cockroach C. A button battery D.A piece of cotton Question 99 When a patient has suspected postoperative bleeding, the immediate priority of care is to: A.Identify the bleeding site B. Ensure hemodynamic stability C. Transfuse packed red blood cells D.Obtain a stat surgical consult Question 100 Mr. Quigley is a 56-year-old male patient who presents for evaluation of difficulty swallowing. Physical examination of the oropharynx reveals a pink irregular mass of approximately 4 cm in the posterior pharynx. The patient is advised that he appears to have an abnormal growth and will need to be referred to otolaryngology. He asks how he got a tumor in his throat. The AGACNP replies that the greatest risk factor(s) for oropharyngeal tumors is(are): A.Tobacco and alcohol use B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) C. Family history of a first degree relative D. Female gender Question 44 Achalasia is a risk factor for: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease C. Esophageal atrophy D. Malabsorption syndromes Question 45 Carolyn C. has a history of Crohn’s disease and has been managed with immunologic agents, with moderate success. Today she presents with severe abdominal pain that comes and goes in waves; it started shortly after she ate a little bit of cottage cheese and crackers. This has never happened before with her Crohn’s disease. She has difficulty localizing the pain but seems to indicate the general area of the umbilicus. She had one episode of diarrhea this morning. Abdominal examination is nonspecific, producing mild tenderness on palpation. Plain abdominal films reveal a dilated small bowel with air fluid levels. The AGACNP suspects: A. Perforated small bowel B. Ulceration through the thickness of small bowel C. Small bowel obstruction D. Gastroenteritis Question 46 S. B. is a 41-year-old female who presents complaining of constipation. She says she has never had problems with bowel movements in the past, although she has heard that constipation is common among women. She says that for the last month or so she has been lucky to have three bowel movements a week, and even when she has one, she doesn’t always feel empty. A review of systems is otherwise negative, and she denies taking any new medications. She denies depression or any mood disorders—she says she actually is very happy and has always felt well, but this bowel problem is bothering her. She has tried over-the-counter products such as Metamucil® and stool softeners, but nothing has helped. Her abdominal, pelvic, and rectal examinations are normal—there are good bowel sounds, no organomegaly, and no discomfort on palpation. The AGACNP considers ordering: A. Stool for occult blood B. Colonic transit assessment C. Contrast CT of the abdomen D. Plain film radiography Question 47 Neoadjuvant chemotherapy treatment for cancer is given to facilitate surgical resection. When the outcomes of cancer therapies are evaluated, the terms complete response and partial response often are used. Partial response means that: A. 50% of the patients treated with a given regimen demonstrate remission B. 50% of the patients treated survive to the 5-year point C. The tumor mass has reduced by > 50% D. In 50% of cases, the tumor converts from unresectable to resectable Question 48 In the preoperative assessment of a patient for the likelihood of postoperative risk, ascorbic acid deficiency, anemia, and volume contraction are all risk factors for: A. Prolonged intubation B. Thromboembolism C. Delayed wound healing D. Atelectasis Question 49 Mr. Thornton is a 55-year-old man who is having an outpatient cardiac workup for the evaluation of exertional chest pain. He is not having chest pain now, but over the last several months he has had episodes of intermittent chest tightness and shortness of breath with mild to moderate exertion, such as when carrying heavy bags of groceries from the car to the house. His 12-lead ECG today reveals Q waves that range from 2 to 3 mm wide and 3–4 mm deep in leads V1 through V5. There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton: A. Is having anterior wall ischemia B. Is having an anterior wall infarction C. Has a history of anterior wall NSTEMI D. Has a history of anterior wall STEMI Question 50 Which of the following types of aortic aneurysms requires immediate surgical intervention? A. Type A B. Type B C. Descending D. Symptomatic Question 51 When examining a patient with abdominal pain, the AGACNP knows that tenderness to percussion is analogous to: A. Tympany B. Guarding C. Rebound tenderness D. Somatic pain Question 52 Janet is a 54-year-old female who is in the ICU following hepatic resection due to metastatic disease. She is expected to move to a general medical floor today. Morning labs are as follows: serum bilirubin approximately 2 g/dL, albumin 3.1 g/dL, and prothrombin time 20 seconds. AST and ALT are 85 and 99 respectively. The appropriate response would be to: A. Cancel the transfer and keep her in the ICU B. Infuse albumin and fresh frozen plasma C. Repeat the labs the next day D. Prepare for reoperation Question 53 Lester R. is a 58-year-old male who is being evaluated for nocturia. He reports that he has to get up 2 to 3 times nightly to void. Additional assessment reveals urinary urgency and appreciable post-void dribbling. A digital rectal examination reveals a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. The best approach to this patient includes: A. Administration of the American Urological Association (AUA) Symptom Scale B. Laboratory assessment to include a PSA C. Ordering a prostate ultrasound D. Assessment of nonprostate causes of nocturia Question 54 K. W. is a 50-year-old woman who presents for surgical resection of the liver for treatment of metastatic colon cancer. Preoperatively, the surgeon tells her that he is planning to remove 50 to 75% of her liver. The patient is concerned that she will not be able to recover normal liver function with that much removed. The AGACNP counsels her that: A. Such a high-volume resection is utilized only in people with markedly compromised hepatic function B. Major regeneration occurs within 10 days, and the process is complete by 5 weeks C. Liver function will probably recover to 50% baseline, but that is enough for normal function D. Up to 95% of the liver can be removed without any apparent consequence to the patient Question 55 A student AGACNP just beginning his clinical rotation is observing his preceptor perform a physical survey on a patient who is brought in following a serious motor vehicle accident. The student observes that the physical examination includes rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of the pelvic landmarks. The student knows the patient is being assessed for: A. Peritoneal bleeding B. Retroperitoneal bleeding C. Paresthesia D. Pelvic fracture Question 56 S. R. is a 51-year-old male patient who is being evaluated for fatigue. Over the last few months he has noticed a marked decrease in activity tolerance. Physical examination reveals a variety of ecchymoses of unknown origin. The CBC is significant for a Hgb of 10.1 g/dL, an MCV of 72 fL and a platelet count of 65,000/µL; the remainder of the CBC is normal. Coagulation studies are normal, but bleeding time is prolonged. The AGACNP recognizes that initial management of this patient will include: A. Avoidance of elective surgery and nonessential medications B. Prednisone 60 mg daily until platelets normal C. Monoclonal antibody therapy such as rituximab D. Splenectomy Question 57 The AGACNP is counseling a patient about various methods of tumor biopsy. Which of the following is not an accurate statement? A. Incisional biopsy is preferred to excisional biopsy when possible B. Core needle biopsy has a higher rate of false positive than does fine needle aspiration C. Fine needle aspiration does not allow grading of tumors D. Core needle and incisional biopsies are virtually identical in terms of false results Question 58 The AGACNP recognizes that which of the following diagnostic studies is essential in all cases of acute abdomen? A. Abdominal radiograph B. Contrast radiography C. Chest radiography D. Ultrasonography Question 59 Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are most commonly caused by: A. Blunt trauma B. Rotational injury C. Seat belts D. Gunshot wounds Question 60 T. S. is a 31-year-old female who is admitted following a catastrophic industrial accident. She had multiple injuries, and after a 10-day hospital stay that included several operations and attempts to save her, she is declared brain dead. She had an organ donor notation on her driver’s license. Which of the following circumstances precludes her from serving as a liver donor? A. Encephalopathy B. Hepatitis C infection C. A long history of alcohol use D. Biliary cirrhosis Question 61 When counseling a patient about his surgical options for an ulcer that has been refractory to medical therapy, the AGACNP advises the patient that he will need: A. Lifelong vitamin D replacement B. Excision of the ulcer, which produces an 80% cure rate C. To eat much smaller, more frequent meals D. Some form of vagotomy Question 62 Jake is a 32-year-old patient who is recovering from major abdominal surgery and organ resection following a catastrophic motor vehicle accident. Due to the nature of his injuries, a large portion of his jejunum had to be resected. In planning for his recovery and nutritional needs, the AGACNP considers that: A. He will probably be able to transition to oral nutrition but will have lifetime issues with diarrhea B. His procedure has put him at significant risk for B12 absorption problems C. Most jejunum absorption functions will be assumed by the ileum D. Enteral nutrition will need to be delayed for 3 to 6 months to facilitate adaptation Question 63 Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that ―turned into‖ cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that: A. The polyps are considered precancerous, but if he has a colonoscopy every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be removed before they become malignant B. The primary danger is when there is a family history of colon cancer; he should discuss with his mother and father the presence of any colon cancer in the family C. There is no chance that these polyps could become cancerous, and their presence does not require any additional action or concern on his part D. He would be best served at this point to discuss with an oncologist the risks and benefits of aggressive versus conservative treatment. Question 64 enna is a 41-year-old female who presents to the emergency room complaining of sudden hearing loss. She is generally very healthy—she denies any significant medical history, and her only daily medication is a combined oral contraceptive. She does admit that she is just getting over a ―head cold,‖ but other than that she offers no relevant history. A comprehensive history and physical examination results in a diagnosis of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) of unknown origin. The AGACNP knows that the next step in the patient’s management should include: A. Acyclovir B. Furosemide C. Warfarin D. Hyperbaric oxygen Question 65 A patient presents with a 2-day history of abdominal pain, fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. A surgical abdomen is ruled out, and radiography demonstrates inflammation of the small bowel and colon. Microscopy supports a diagnosis of Campylobacter jejuni, and the patient is prepared for discharge from the emergency room. Important patient education includes advising her that: A. The bacteria may be spread for as long as she has diarrhea B. The disorder should resolve on its own; recurrence is rare but represents a much more serious condition C. She will need to take a 10-day course of antibiotics D. There is no readily identified food source of this bacteria Question 66 While reviewing the head CT scan of a patient following a motor vehicle accident, the AGACNP appreciates a crescent-shaped fluid collection. This most likely represents: A. Acute subdural hematoma B. Acute epidural hematoma C. Acute uncal herniation D. Acute brainstem compression Question 67 Sara S. is a 41-year-old patient who has just had a bone marrow transplant. The AGACNP knows that which medication will be used to decrease her risk of graft-versus-host reaction? A. Immune globulin B. Cyclosporine C. Prophylactic antibiotics D. Systemic corticosteroids Question 68 H. W. is a 33-year-old female who is being evaluated after a fall from a tree. Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs of the thoracolumbosacral spine are significant for transverse process fractures at T6 and T7. The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include: A. Observation B. Hyperextension casting C. Jewett brace D. Surgical intervention Question 69 When evaluating a patient with acute pancreatitis, which of the following physical or diagnostic findings is an ominous finding that indicates a seriously ill/potentially moribund patient? A. Severe epigastric pain with radiation to the back B. Abdominal guarding and rigidity C. Grey Turner sign D. Obturator sign Question 70 P. T. is a 58-year-old female who is admitted with chest pain and shortness of breath and is found to have a large pulmonary embolus. Her systolic blood pressure is falling, and a diagnosis of obstructive shock is made. Cardiac pressure would likely demonstrate: A. Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures B. Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures C. Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased cardiac output D. Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance Question 71 Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to: A. Arrange for large-bore needle biopsy B. Order hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression C. Consult surgery for resection D. Document the finding in the patient’s chart Question 72 A patient admitted for management of sepsis is critically ill and wants to talk with a hospital representative about donating her organs if she dies. She has a fairly complex medical history that includes traumatic brain injury, breast cancer, and dialysis-dependent renal failure. The patient is advised that sh

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